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Study Resources (Criminal Justice)

  21. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with structured professional judgment? a. It may include both static and dynamic risk factors. b. A person’s ultimate risk level is determined by specific cut-off scores. c. It is guided by predetermined list of risk factors. d. It may be conducted by law enforcement officers. e..
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  39. Distinguish between a reactive and an instrumental homicide. 40. Differentiate between filicide, familicide, femicide, and mariticide. 41. How are serial murder and mass murder similar? What are the key elements that distinguish these types of multiple murders from one another?   .
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3. Explain how psychopaths differ from nonpsychopaths and more specifically how psychopaths’ use of violence differs from nonpychopathic offenders. 4. Explain who Clifford Olson is and why he is famous. What changes have been made to Canadian legislation as a result of his request? .
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  42. List four of the six key differences that were identified by Hickey (2006) between female and male serial murderers. 43. Holmes and Holmes (1998) proposed a four-fold classification system of serial murderers, with one being a hedonistic serial murderer. What motivates a hedonistic serial murderer? List the three subtypes of.
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31. The crime that involves repeatedly following, communicating with, or watching another person is called: a. threatening with intent b. criminal harassment c. attempted assault d. obstruction of justice e. none of the above 32. According to the General Social Survey (GSS), what percentage of women reported being stalked in the past 5 years in a.
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31. Olver and Wong (2009) found that psychopathic offenders who remained in treatment were: a. more likely to violently reoffend b. more likely to manipulate prison staff c. less likely to violently reoffend d. likely not to show any treatment gains e. more likely to be long-term offender 32. Mock jurors presented with information on a.
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1. Which of the following types of cases would not be heard at a provincial or “inferior” court? a. traffic violations b. small claims c. first degree murder cases d. appeals from administrative tribunals e. both b and c 2. Which of the following is not a potential explanation for Aboriginal overrepresentation in the prison system? a..
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  11. Prior to commencing a court-ordered assessment of a child or adolescent, a clinician must legally: a. obtain consent from the youth’s parents or guardians b. obtain consent from the youth c. obtain assent from the youth d. obtain consent from the youth’s lawyer e. Court-ordered assessments do not legally require consent or assent. 12. Which.
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  21. In a study examining the use of instrumental motives, psychopaths engaged in instrumental murder in ______ of cases: a. 93% b. 77% c. 50% d. 34% e. 10% 22. Dogs who display psychopathic traits were: a. friendlier than most dog breeds b. immune to punishment c. fearless d. both a and b e. both b and c 23. According to the.
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  11. Which of the following is not a component of social learning theory? a. patriarchy b. observational learning c. instigators of aggression d. regulators of aggression e. origins of aggression 12. Every time a man uses violence against his partner, he gets what he wants. This would be an example of a(n): a. external punishment b. observational punishment c..
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41. The Conflict Tactics Scale (CTS; Straus, 1979), a scale used to measure domestic assault, has been criticized on many grounds. List four of the five criticisms specified in your text. 42. Name and briefly describe the three components included in Albert Bandura’s Social Learning Theory of intimate violence.   .
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1. Intimate partner violence consists of physical, sexual, emotional, and _____ abuse. a. public b. child c. financial d. neglectful e. none of the above 2. Which scale is most commonly used to measure domestic violence? a. Conflict Resolution Scale b. Domestic Battery Scale c. Conflict Tactics Scale d. Peaceful Resolution Scale e. Myths and Realities Scale 3. Which of the following.
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  21. Which of the following statements is true regarding identifying risk factors for young offenders? a. History of behaviour is limited and ambiguous for young offenders b. Adolescent behaviour may be more influenced by context than enduring characteristics c. Adolescents experience more developmental and character changes than adults d. It is a challenge to.
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  21. Which type of male batterer is least likely to report negative attitudes supportive of violence? a. the family-only batterer b. the dysphoric/borderline batterer c. the generally violent/antisocial batterer d. the psychopathic batterer e. the antisocial batterer 22. Three types of male batterers have been identified by the empirical literature. The _________ batterer engages in __________.
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  40. What is the difference between reactive aggression and proactive aggression? Which is related to an earlier onset of problems? 41. Define “resilient” and identify four ways that protective factors are effective. 42. Describe primary, secondary, and tertiary intervention strategies.   .
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  21. Which of the following is not a scale included in the R-CRAS? a. cognitive control b. behavioural control c. psychopathology d. current emotional state e. organicity 22. Which of the following dispositions can be made following a finding of NCRMD? a. detention in a psychiatric facility b. absolute discharge c. conditional discharge d. all of the above are potential.
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1. Prior to the 1990s, a person’s risk of violence was viewed as a _____________. Today, it is viewed as a _____________. a. scale/three-dimensional rating b. dichotomy/range c. three-dimensional rating/scale d. range/dichotomy e. none of the above 2. Currently, what is/are the primary objectives of violence risk assessment? a. to estimate the likelihood that someone will commit.
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1. Which of the following is not true regarding sexual offence statistics? a. In 2008 the rate of sex offences per 100 000 population was 50 000. b. Official statistics do not provide an accurate estimate of the true incidence of sex offences. c. Children and youth have high victimization rates. d. The majority.
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  37. According to Finkelhor’s (1984) theory of child molesting, what are the four preconditions in order for sexual abuse to occur? 38. Describe the two main components of relapse prevention programs aimed at sexual offenders. In addition, distinguish between the terms lapse, relapse, and abstinence violation effect in the context of.
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  21. What is the difference between instrumental violence and reactive violence? a. Instrumental violence is used to achieve an external gain whereas reactive violence is in response to provocation. b. Instrumental violence is in response to provocation whereas reactive violence is used to achieve an external gain. c. Instrumental violence is unplanned and.
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  47. Identify and explain the four historical risk factors for violent/criminal behaviour discussed in your text. Be as specific as possible. 48. Using structured professional judgment, you wish to predict an offender’s risk of violent recidivism. Of the assessment instruments described in your textbook, which one would you likely use? Provide.
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  11. Tommy is hospitalized due to injuries sustained from a car accident, which was caused by an inattentive driver. The judge requires that the driver pay for Tommy’s medical bills incurred as a result of the accident. This particular sentence is known as: a. a conditional discharge b. a conditional sentence c. a.
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  11. Robert’s parents feel he exhibits reckless behaviour, irresponsibility, and lack of remorse. Robert has been this way since birth, and his parents feel he has a difficult temperament. Robert might have: a. psychopathy b. avoidant personality disorder c. affective disorder d. borderline personality disorder e. psychosis 12. ______ of offenders can be classified as psychopaths. a..
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  11. Which of the following statements is true regarding prediction outcomes in the context of risk assessment? a. Decreasing the number of false positive errors results in an increase in the number of false negative errors. b. A false negative error has negative implications for the person being assessed. c. When trying to.
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1. Psychopaths have been called: a. exceptional predators b. interpersonal predators c. intraspecies predators d. predatory species e. special predatory 2. Hervey Cleckley’s book ____________________ provided one of the most extensive clinical descriptions of psychopaths. a. The Psychopath b. Evil People c. The Mask of Sanity d. Master Manipulator e. Callous 3. Which Canadian researcher developed the Psychopathy Checklist-Revised? a. Olson b. Cleckley c. Patrick d..
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35. Groth (1979) proposed a threefold rapist typology. Name and briefly define each of these types of rapists, focusing on each rapist’s goals, the amount of force used, and the primary motivations. 36. List four characteristics of the fixated child molester and four characteristics of the regressed child molester.   .
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  45. What is actuarial risk assessment? Provide two advantages and two disadvantages associated with this method. What new method of risk assessment was developed in an attempt to address certain limitations associated with the actuarial approach? 46. Within the context of violence prediction, distinguish between a static risk factor, a dynamic.
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  44. Holtzworth-Munroe and Stuart (1994) developed a typology of male batterers based on the severity of violence, generality of violence, and personality disorder characteristics. Name and define each of the three types of batterers. 45. Identify and explain the two most common forms of intervention for male batterers. According to the.
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  21. According to the study by Gendreau et al. (2001), which examined the effectiveness of community-based sanctions and incarceration, the only two sanctions that were found to decrease recidivism were: a. prison and electronic monitoring b. restitution and supervision programs c. fines and electronic monitoring d. restitution and fines e. prison and supervision programs 22. According.
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31. The HCR-20 is: a. an example of an actuarial tool for assessing risk of violence b. an example of an actuarial tool for assessing responsivity to treatment c. an example of a structured professional judgment for assessing risk of violence d. an example of a structured professional judgment for assessing psychopathy e. a tool.
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41. Name and define the two components of the risk assessment process. 42. Risk assessment is associated with both correct and incorrect prediction outcomes. Construct a 2 × 2 table illustrating four possible prediction outcomes in risk assessment for violence. Identify who suffers the consequences of each decision error.   .
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