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  ESSAY.  Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 71) Compare and contrast type I hypersensitivity with type IV hypersensitivity with respect to reaction time, mediators, and cells involved.   72) Hashimoto's thyroiditis and Graves' disease are autoimmune diseases involving the thyroid, but Hashimoto's results in hypothyroidism.
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    11) Which of the following are chemotactic factors for phagocytes? A) interferons and chemokines B) peptide fragments from complement C) interferons D) chemokines and peptide fragments from complement E) chemokines   12) Which of the following statements about eosinophil function is true? A) They identify and spare normal cells. B) They are involved in the removal of.
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MULTIPLE CHOICE.  Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following is NOT an example of symbiosis? A) microbes passing across the placenta to the fetus B) tapeworm in the human intestine C) tuberculosis in the human lung D) bacteria in the human colon E) protozoa.
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    11) Which of the following statements comparing virus classification and taxonomy of organisms is true? A) Both viruses and organisms are organized into classes. B) Only families are common to both viral classification and organism taxonomy. C) Genus and specific epithet are used in both classification systems. D) Both viruses and organisms are.
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  SHORT ANSWER.  Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 56) The ability of the body to respond faster and more effectively to a second exposure to pathogens is called immunologic (memory/synapse/tolerance).   57) An antigen produced by a pathogen while living inside a cell is.
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  TRUE/FALSE.  Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 46) Large molecules such as polymers make good antigens.   47) Molecules with a molecular mass less than 5000 daltons can become antigens when they bind to carrier molecules.   48) IgG antibodies have a variety of mechanisms.
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    11) How is hemolytic disease of the newborn prevented? A) treating with cytokines to prevent B cell activation late in pregnancy B) treating with glucocorticoids throughout pregnancy C) immunizing a woman against Rh factor prior to pregnancy D) administering anti-IgG antibodies during pregnancy E) administering anti-Rh IgG late in pregnancy and after pregnancy ends   12).
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  TRUE/FALSE.  Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 46) Viruses cause most human cancers.   47) Most viruses cannot be seen by light microscopy.   48) Protozoa are susceptible to viral attack.   49) Many diseases of plants are caused by infectious RNA molecules lacking capsids.   50).
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  TRUE/FALSE.  Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 46) Interferons alpha and beta are effective against viruses.   47) The resident microbiota have no role in defense against pathogen invasion.   48) Sweat can cause damage to bacteria because it contains salt and lysozyme.   49) The.
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  ESSAY.  Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 71) Describe the events of the acute inflammatory response and their effect on a site of infection. Include the cells and chemicals involved.   72) What are macrophages, and what are their functions?   73) Describe at least three physical.
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  ESSAY.  Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 71) Discuss the importance of there being two types of adaptive immune responses (antibody and cell-mediated).   72) A variety of molecular components of the adaptive immune system bind epitopes (antigenic determinants). Compare and contrast the binding of.
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  66) The bacterium that causes cholera is capable of living independently in freshwater. As a consequence, cholera epidemics primarily involve (nonliving/animal/zoonotic) reservoirs.   67) The study of the cause of disease is known as (epidemiology/etiology).   68) The hepatitis C virus normally establishes a (latent/chronic/subclinical) infection and may be asymptomatic for a.
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  SHORT ANSWER.  Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 56) Deliberate infection of young children with particles of ground smallpox scabs from children who had survived mild cases of smallpox was known as (vaccination/variolation/immunization).   57) Raising viruses for numerous generations can produce an (attenuated/inactivated).
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  SHORT ANSWER.  Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 56) The combination of a virus's protein coat and nucleic acid core is called the (capsid/virion/nucleocapsid).   57) Viral capsids are composed of subunits called (nucleocapsids/capsomeres).   58) Virus infection is initiated by the specific (fit/affinity/interaction) between.
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MULTIPLE CHOICE.  Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following is NOT considered a hypersensitivity reaction? A) a rash caused by poison ivy B) immune system attack on the thyroid gland C) dermatitis at the site of a metal watchband D) breaking into hives.
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    31) Hypotheses explaining the development of autoimmune disease include A) hormonal stimulation of cytotoxic T cells. B) molecular mimicry. C) molecular mimicry, genetic factors, and hormonal stimulation of cytotoxic T cells. D) genetic factors. E) anaphylactic shock triggered by molecular mimicry.   32) Multiple sclerosis is A) an autoimmune disease in which cytotoxic T cells attack.
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MULTIPLE CHOICE.  Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The first and second lines of defense against microbial invasion are part of A) adaptive immunity. B) microbial antagonism. C) innate immunity. D) species resistance. E) both species resistance and adaptive immunity.   2) Which of the following are phagocytic cells.
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MULTIPLE CHOICE.  Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) In what ways do viruses differ from other pathogens? A) Viruses have no protein structure. B) Viruses are composed of both protein and lipid. C) Viruses lack cytoplasm and organelles. D) Viruses are composed of protein only. E) Viruses.
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    11) Killed vaccines work by stimulating A) the cell-mediated immune response. B) cytotoxic T cells. C) phagocytic activity. D) lymphocyte proliferation. E) an antibody mediated response.   12) Which of the following substances is commonly used to inactivate microbes? A) mineral oil B) aluminum C) formaldehyde D) aluminum phosphate E) saponin   13) What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine?.
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    11) Single-celled eukaryotes lacking a cell wall are A) algae. B) fungi. C) protozoa. D) insects. E) water molds.   12) The ________ is the entire interwoven mass of one multicellular fungal organism. A) sporangium B) mycelium C) pseudoplasmodium D) hyphae E) conidiophore   13) Which of the following is classified among the Alveolates? A) Plasmodium B) Paramecium and Plasmodium C) foraminifera D) Paramecium and.
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  SHORT ANSWER.  Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 55) The fever and chills associated with malaria are due to the release of uninucleate daughter cells of Plasmodium called (merozoites/schizonts/coencytes).   56) The vegetative stage of a protozoan is called a (cyst/merozoite/trophozoite).   57) The (fungi/algae/lichens).
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  SHORT ANSWER.  Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 56) Toxins that affect the lining of the gastrointestinal tract are (endotoxins/enterotoxins/exotoxins).   57) The degree to which a microbe is able to cause disease is known as its (morbidity/virulence/toxicity).   58) Places in the body where.
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  TRUE/FALSE.  Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 46) Edward Jenner was the physician who first used cowpox to vaccinate individuals against smallpox.   47) Passive immunotherapy does not result in immunological memory.   48) For some bacterial diseases such as tetanus, it is more effective.
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    21) The bacterium that causes tuberculosis can be expelled from the lungs by a cough and remain viable in the air for an hour or more. If a person inhales the bacteria from the air, what type of transmission has occurred? A) foodborne B) bodily fluid C) airborne D) indirect contact E) waterborne   22) A.
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    21) The study and diagnosis of antigen-antibody interactions in the blood is known as A) hematology. B) serology. C) histology. D) immunology. E) cytology.   22) Which of the following diagnostic procedures depends on precipitation of antigen-antibody complexes? A) blood typing B) ELISA C) immunodiffusion D) fluorescent antibody tests E) viral hemagglutination inhibition tests used to diagnose viral infections   23)   For.
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    21) Which cell becomes a macrophage when leaving the bloodstream? A) eosinophil B) neutrophil C) lymphocyte D) monocyte E) basophil   22) The components of the second line of defense against microbes may be characterized as A) passive barriers. B) detecting the unique features of specific pathogens. C) mechanisms to strengthen the first line of defense. D) responders to.
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    11) Which of the following situations might cause normal microbiota to become opportunistic pathogens? A) treatment of a cancer patient with radiation B) growth of microorganisms on the excreted cellular wastes and dead cells in the large intestine C) growth of microbes on the surface of intact skin D) presence of Entamoeba in.
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    21) Parasitology is the study of A) both helminths and protozoa. B) fungi. C) algae. D) protozoa. E) helminths.   22) Which of the following is a dinoflagellate whose toxin causes possible estuary-associated syndrome (PEAS)? A) Pfiesteria B) Toxoplasma C) Gonyaulax D) Balantidium E) Gymnodinium   23) The large seaweed known as kelp is classified as a member of the A) Chlorophyta. B).
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MULTIPLE CHOICE.  Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Antigens are   A) enzymes secreted to destroy a pathogen's cell wall. B) specific molecules, or parts of molecules, that the body recognizes as foreign. C) cells that protect the body against invaders. D) proteins the body produces against.
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    21) Reverse transcriptase is associated with which of the following? A) dsRNA viruses B) retroviruses C) dsDNA viruses D) +ssRNA viruses E) -ssRNA viruses   22) The genome of which of the following types of animal virus can act directly as mRNA? A) ssDNA viruses B) +ssRNA viruses C) -ssRNA viruses D) retroviruses E) dsRNA viruses   23) Which of the following.
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MULTIPLE CHOICE.  Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) What clinical manifestation do Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis share? A) nosocomial infections B) hyaluronidase enzyme C) protein A antiphagocytic factor D) enterotoxins E) staphylokinase   2) Which of the following has been historically classified as Gram-negative bacteria but is genetically.
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  TRUE/FALSE.  Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 45) Haploid genomes contain two sets of chromosomes.   46) Fungi reproduce only asexually.   47) Protozoa are eukaryotic organisms that lack a cell wall and can be unicellular or multicellular.   48) Ciliates often have two kinds of.
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MULTIPLE CHOICE.  Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) What is the most efficient and cost-effective way to control infectious diseases? A) variolation B) immune testing C) passive immunotherapy using immunoglobulins D) autoimmunization E) active immunization by vaccination   2) When immunization levels in a population are high, ________ provides.
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  ESSAY.  Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 71) Discuss the similarities and differences between immunodiffusion and immunochromatographic assays.   72) Compare and contrast viral neutralization and viral hemagglutination tests.   73) Two types of vaccines for polio have been developed, an inactivated whole (Salk) and a live.
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    31) Which of the following diseases may be reduced by improved public sanitation measures? A) chickenpox B) malaria C) cholera D) HIV E) rabies   32) Which of the following is the correct sequence of a disease process? A) incubation, convalescence, prodromal period, illness, decline B) prodromal period, convalescence, incubation, illness, decline C) illness, convalescence, incubation, prodromal period,.
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  SHORT ANSWER.  Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 56) The first and second lines of defense respond to invading microbes by (specific/nonspecific) mechanisms.   57) The absence of necessary receptors is the basis of the defense against microbial invasion known as (natural/innate/species) resistance.   58).
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    31) Plaque assays are used for A) the study of prions. B) determine the density of phage in a culture. C) evaluating the cancer-causing ability of a virus. D) counting the number of latent phages in a cell. E) cultivating viruses that cannot be grown any other way.   32) Diploid cell cultures and continuous cell.
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    31) Which of the following assays is dependent on the ability of antibodies to bind to and crosslink two antigens? A) immunoblot tests B) precipitation tests C) direct fluorescent antibody tests D) neutralization tests E) ELISAs   32) Agglutination tests can be used to A) determine the concentration of complement proteins in serum. B) detect a complex.
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    31) Which of the following substances is responsible for the edema associated with inflammation? A) interferon B) defensin C) histamine D) leukotrienes E) both leukotrienes and histamine   32) Which of the following is NOT an example of a walled-off site of infection that contains a fluid made of dead and dying tissue cells, leukocytes, and.
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  TRUE/FALSE.  Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 46) Normally, complement-activating immune complexes are eliminated from the body by phagocytosis.   47) In most cases, production of antibodies against foreign ABO antigens is stimulated by exposure to foreign blood cells.   48) MHC genes are significant.
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    31) The protozoan that causes malaria is an intracellular parasite of red blood cells (RBCs). An adaptive immune response to this parasite is problematic because A) red blood cells do not produce MHC and therefore do not display the fact that they have been infected by presenting antigen. B) RBCs normally.
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  SHORT ANSWER.  Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 56) Contact dermatitis is a type (I/II/III/IV) hypersensitivity disorder.   57) Rheumatoid arthritis is a type (I/II/III/IV) hypersensitivity reaction that results when B cells produce autoantibodies that damage the cartilage in the joints.   58) Although autoantibodies.
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