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Study Resources (Business Management)

  16.1   Multiple-Choice Questions   1) Antigens are A) specific molecules, or parts of molecules, that the body recognizes as foreign. B) proteins the body produces against invading substances. C) cells that protect the body against invaders. D) proteins on the surface of our cells that pathogens attach to. E) enzymes secreted to destroy a pathogen's cell wall.   2).
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    11) Which of the following situations might cause normal microbiota to become opportunistic pathogens? A) growth of microbes on the surface of intact skin B) growth of microorganisms on the excreted cellular wastes and dead cells in the large intestine C) treatment of a cancer patient with radiation D) growth of Lactobacillus on the.
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    21) Which of the following statements about helper T cells is FALSE? A) They secrete messenger proteins called cytokines. B) They are sometimes called T4 cells. D) They cannot be distinguished from other T lymphocytes. E) They function in conjunction with B cells.   22) Major histocompatibility antigens are A) antigens that provoke allergic reactions. B) antigens that.
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  3) Two types of vaccines for polio have been developed, an inactivated whole (Salk) and a live attenuated (Sabin) vaccine. Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of the two polio vaccines.   4) What is the best serological test to confirm infection with HIV? How is it performed?   5) How has modern.
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  3) Describe the difference between lysogeny and latency.   4) A scientist discovers a new virus associated with a cancer. She is able to culture it in the laboratory and characterize it. The virions contain an RNA genome and enzymes with reverse transcriptase activity. What do these observations suggest about the classification.
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  18.2   True/False Questions   1) Normally, complement-activating immune complexes are eliminated from the body by phagocytosis.   2) In most cases, production of antibodies against foreign ABO antigens is stimulated by exposure to foreign blood cells.   3) MHC genes are significant genetic factors in predisposition to develop autoimmune disease.   4) The tuberculin response is an example.
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  11) The bacterium that causes cholera is capable of living independently in freshwater. As a consequence, cholera epidemics primarily involve __________ reservoirs. 12) The study of the cause of disease is known as __________.   13) The hepatitis C virus normally establishes a(n) __________ infection and may be asymptomatic for a decade.   14) The.
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  14.4   Essay Questions   1) What are the different types of symbiosis? List and give a short definition and an example for each. 2) Researchers have proposed that the herpesvirus responsible for the childhood illness roseola may cause a type of T cell leukemia. Ninety percent of the population has been infected by.
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  13.1   Multiple-Choice Questions   1) Which of the following statements concerning viruses is FALSE? A) Viruses never contain both DNA and RNA. B) Viruses enter a cell to complete the replication they have begun extracellularly. C) Some viruses have an outer membrane called an envelope. D) Viral capsids can assume one of three basic shapes. E) Tobacco.
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  13.3   Short Answer Questions   1) The combination of a virus's protein coat and nucleic acid core is called the __________.   2) Viral capsids are composed of subunits called __________.   3) A(n) __________ is a 20-sided polyhedral capsid.   4) Bacteriophages use the enzyme __________ to breach the bacterial cell wall.   5) The number of new bacteriophages.
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    31) Hypotheses explaining the development of autoimmune disease include A) molecular mimicry. B) genetic factors. C) hormonal stimulation of cytotoxic T cells. D) anaphylactic shock triggered by molecular mimicry. E) molecular mimicry, genetic factors, and hormonal stimulation of cytotoxic T cells.   32) Multiple sclerosis is A) an autoimmune disease in which cytotoxic T cells attack the myelin.
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  17.4   Essay Questions   1) Discuss the similarities and differences between immunodiffusion and immunochromatographic assays. 2) A research team identifies the microbe responsible for a new epidemic disease and determines that it is an intracellular parasite. They are able to find conditions under which it will grow in the laboratory. The team is.
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  16.2   True/False Questions   1) Large molecules such as polymers make good antigens. 2) Molecules with a molecular mass less than 5000 daltons can become antigens when they bind to carrier molecules.   3) IgG antibodies have a variety of mechanisms for acting on antigens.   4) The MALT lacks the tough outer capsule of a lymph.
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    21) Which cell becomes a macrophage when leaving the bloodstream? A) monocyte B) lymphocyte C) basophil D) eosinophil E) neutrophil   22) Which of the following is NOT involved in phagocytosis? A) activation B) chemotaxis C) adherence D) ingestion E) killing   23) The M protein on the surface of Streptococcus pyogenes A) is part of the capsule and prevents adherence of phagocytes to its.
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    31) Which of the following is NOT an example of a zoonosis? A) typhus B) rabies C) typhoid fever D) salmonellosis E) anthrax 32) Which of the following is the correct sequence of a disease process? A) convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline B) prodromal period, convalescence, incubation, illness, decline C) incubation, convalescence, prodromal period, illness, decline D) incubation, prodromal.
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    31) The protozoan that causes malaria is an intracellular parasite of red blood cells (RBCs). An adaptive immune response to this parasite is problematic because A) red blood cells do not produce MHC and therefore do not display the fact that they have been infected by presenting antigen. B) the parasite damages.
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    21) The study and diagnosis of antigen-antibody interactions in the blood is known as A) immunology. B) hematology. C) serology. D) cytology. E) histology.   22) Which of the following diagnostic procedures depends on precipitation of an antigen-antibody complex? A) blood typing B) immunodiffusion C) viral hemagglutination inhibition tests used to diagnose viral infections D) ELISA E) fluorescent antibody tests   23) Which of.
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  16.3   Short Answer Questions   1) The ability of the body to recognize its own __________ is called self-tolerance.   2) An antigen produced by a pathogen while living inside a cell is known as a(n) __________ antigen.   3) The body recognizes antigens by the three dimensional shapes of regions known as __________ determinants..
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  17.1   Multiple-Choice Questions   1) What is the most efficient and cost-effective way to control infectious diseases? A) variolation B) active immunization by vaccination C) passive immunotherapy using immunoglobulins D) immune testing E) autoimmunization   2) The discovery and use of __________ have greatly decreased the mortality and morbidity of infectious diseases. A) chemotaxic substances B) interferons C) interleukins D) antitoxoids E) immunoglobulins   3) Variolation.
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    31) Plaque assays are used for A) evaluating the cancer-causing ability of a virus. B) estimating the number of phages in a culture. C) the study of prions. D) cultivating viruses that cannot be grown any other way. E) counting the number of latent phages in a cell.   32) Diploid cell cultures and continuous cell cultures.
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  12.3   Short Answer Questions   1) The fever and chills associated with malaria are due to the release of uninucleate daughter cells of Plasmodium called __________.   2) The vegetative stage of a protozoan is called a __________.   3) Some protozoa protect themselves from the adverse effects of osmosis by the use of __________ vacuoles.
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    11) Which of the following statements comparing virus classification and taxonomy of organisms is true? A) Both viruses and organisms are organized into classes. B) The common names of viruses are their genus and species epithet, as they are with organisms. C) Both viruses and organisms are organized into domains. D) Genus and specific.
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  17.2   True/False Questions   1) Edward Jenner was the physician who first used cowpox to vaccinate individuals against smallpox.   2) The process of reducing the virulence of a microbe is known as attenuation.   3) For some bacterial diseases such as tetanus, it is more effective to produce an immune response against the bacterial toxin.
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  17.3   Short Answer Questions   1) Deliberate infection of young children with particles of ground smallpox scabs from children who had survived mild cases of smallpox was known as __________.   2) Raising viruses for numerous generations can produce a(n) __________ form of the virus. 3) Vaccines that contain attenuated microbes are also known as.
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    31) Which of the following substances is responsible for the edema associated with inflammation? A) leukotrienes B) histamine C) interferon D) defensin E) both leukotrienes and histamine   32) Which of the following is NOT an example of a walled-off site of infection that contains a fluid made of dead tissue cells and dead leukocytes? A) a boil B).
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  13.2   True/False Questions   1) Viruses cause most human cancers.   2) Most viruses cannot be seen by light microscopy.   3) Protozoa are susceptible to viral attack.   4) Many diseases of plants are caused by infectious RNA molecules lacking capsids.   5) Bacteriophages are cheaper and easier to culture than animal viruses.   6) Assembly of new viruses is a.
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  14.3   Short Answer Questions   1) Toxins that affect the lining of the gastrointestinal tract are __________.   2) E. coli in the colon is an example of __________ microbiota. 3) Places in the body where there is no normal microbiota are referred to as __________.   4) Neurotoxins interfere with the __________ function of.
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  12.2   True/False Questions   1) Haploid genomes contain two sets of chromosomes.   2) Fungi reproduce only asexually.   3) Protozoa are eukaryotic organisms that lack a cell wall and can be unicellular or multicellular.   4) Ciliates often have two kinds of nuclei that have different functions.   5) In fungi, aseptate hyphae are coenocytic by definition.   6) Algae can.
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    31) Which of the following is the technique used for detecting antibodies against multiple antigens in a complex mixture? A) the western blot test B) the ELISA C) hemagglutination inhibition test D) the direct fluorescent antibody test E) the Ouchterlony test   32) Scientists commonly use radial immunodiffusion testing to A) diagnose infections by specific strains of viruses. B).
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  16.4   Essay Questions   1) Discuss the basic structure of the antibody molecule. 2) A variety of molecular components of the adaptive immune system bind epitopes (antigenic determinants). Compare and contrast the binding of epitopes by antibody molecules, T cell receptors (TCRs), and MHC molecules, and describe the consequences of the different interactions.       .
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  15.2   True/False Questions   1) Interferons work against viruses.   2) The resident microbiota have no role in defense against pathogen invasion.   3) Sweat contains lysozyme.   4) Defensins are small peptides that work specifically against certain pathogens.   5) Some Toll-like receptors (TLRs) are found on the surface of host cells and recognize specific microbial molecules.   6) The alternative.
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  14.2   True/False Questions   1) In commensalism, one member of the relationship harms the other.   2) Normal microbiota may cause disease if they are introduced into an unusual site in the body. 3) A syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs that collectively characterize a particular disease.   4) All diseases go through the stages.
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  15.3   Short Answer Questions   1) Antimicrobial peptides secreted by sweat glands are called __________.   2) The absence of necessary receptors is the basis of the defense against microbial invasion known as __________ resistance.   3) Sweat glands produce __________, which destroys the cell wall of bacteria by cleaving the bonds between the.
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  18.1   Multiple-Choice Questions   1) Which of the following is NOT considered a hypersensitivity reaction? A) a rash caused by poison ivy B) immune system attack on the thyroid gland C) itchy eyes and a runny nose in a dusty environment D) dermatitis at the site of a metal watchband E) breaking into hives after eating strawberries   2).
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    11) Killed vaccines work by stimulating A) the production of antibodies. B) the action of Th1 cells. C) the cell-mediated immune response. D) cytotoxic T cells. E) lymphocyte proliferation.   12) Which of the following substances is commonly used to inactivate microbes? A) formaldehyde B) aluminum C) mineral oil D) saponin E) aluminum phosphate   13) What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B.
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    11) Which antibody can cross the placenta and cause hemolytic disease of the newborn? A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM   12) The glycoprotein and glycolipid molecules on the surface of red blood cells A) stimulate the production of antibodies that contribute to the development of a transfusion reaction. B) act to transport glucose and.
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    21) Which of the following is a major source of disease transmission in the world? A) contaminated fomites B) fecal-oral infection C) waterborne transmission D) foodborne transmission E) bodily fluid transmission   22) Acne is an example of a A) contagious disease. B) subacute disease. C) chronic disease. D) noncommunicable disease. E) latent disease. 23) In early spring 2009, the CDC reported several.
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    11) Which of the following are chemotactic factors for phagocytes? A) peptides from complement B) chemokines C) interferons D) interferons and chemokines E) chemokines and peptides from complement   12) Which of the following statements about natural killer lymphocytes is FALSE? A) They accomplish extracellular killing. B) They secrete toxins onto virally infected cells. C) They are involved in the.
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  14.1   Multiple-Choice Questions   1) Which of the following is NOT an example of symbiosis? A) bacteria in the human colon B) tapeworm in the human intestine C) tuberculosis in the human lung D) protozoa in termites E) microbes passing across the placenta to the fetus   2) Mutualism is a relationship A) that sometimes provides benefits for both members.
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  15.1   Multiple-Choice Questions   1) Which of the following is NOT considered part of the body's nonspecific lines of defense against disease? A) antibodies B) mucous membranes C) intact skin D) bloodborne chemicals E) phagocytic cells   2) Which of the following are phagocytic cells found in the epidermis? A) neutrophils B) natural killer lymphocytes C) microglia D) dendritic cells E) wandering macrophages   3) Chemotaxis.
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    21) Reverse transcriptase is associated with which of the following? A) dsDNA viruses B) +ssRNA viruses C) -ssRNA viruses D) retroviruses E) dsRNA viruses   22) The genome of which of the following types of animal virus can act directly as mRNA? A) retroviruses B) +ssRNA viruses C) -ssRNA viruses D) ssDNA viruses E) dsRNA viruses   23) Which of the following types of.
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