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  11) How will E. coli growing in a medium containing both lactose and glucose react? a) By preferentially utilizing lactose first. b) By preferentially utilizing glucose first. c) By utilizing both at the same time. d) Neither compound will be utilized for growth. e) One will sometimes be utilized over the other. 12) Mutants that constitutively.
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  1) What does the term fermentation refer to in an industrial microbiology setting? a) The anaerobic growth of microbes. b) The production of acids and alcohols. c) The production of all fermentation products. d) The mass culturing of microbes for the production of a product. e) A low energy yielding catabolic process. 2) Which of these.
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  41) The regulated movement of a microbe towards or away from a chemical is called __________. 42) The directed movement toward a light source is called ______________. 43) Repressor proteins bind to the control region of a gene called the ___________. 44) The two-component regulatory systems uses a _______ ________ and a response.
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  21) Bacteriophages vary in their ability to infect different strains of bacteria. This is because some bacteria contain _________ __________ that cut the phage DNA after it enters the cell. a) general nucleases b) DNA helicases c) DNA gyrases d) restriction endonucleases e) DNA topoisomerases 22) Genetic elements that are able to “jump” around on the.
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  31) Many antiviral drugs are nucleoside analogs. The nucleoside analogs primarily target these enzymes a) host cell DNA polymerases. b) host cell RNA polymerases. c) host cell nucleases. d) viral nucleic acid polymerases. e) viral nucleases. 32) The reason nucleoside analogs are effective against viral nucleic acid polymerases is because a) viral polymerases have a very high.
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  1) A chemical reaction that has a negative ΔG0 a) is an endergonic reaction. b) will require an input of energy. c) is not a spontaneous reaction. d) is an energy yielding reaction. e) will absorb energy. 2) How do enzymes increase the rate of a biochemical reaction? a) By lowering the activation energy. b) By increasing the.
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  30) Paralogs are genes that arose from a duplication event in the cell. 31) Orthologs are genes that arose from a duplication event in the cell. 32) Horizontal gene transfer occurs when an organism acquires genetic information from another organism in its own generation. 33) Analysis of the genome sequence of an organism.
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  36) The main function of a host cell receptor is to specifically bind to the viral attachment protein. 37) The second step in viral replication, “entry”, is prevented by some antiviral drugs. 38) Reverse transcriptase is an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase. 39) The single-stranded RNA of positive-sense RNA viruses can act directly as mRNA.
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  21) What are micro RNAs? a) mRNAs that encode for regulatory proteins b) small regulatory RNAs c) tRNAs d) rRNAs e) small mRNAs 22) For the initiation of transcription in bacteria, RNA polymerase binds to what region on the gene? a) promoter b) operator c) enhancer region d) origin of replication e) Shine-Dalgarno sequence 23) What is the sigma factor of the.
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  63) Most of the electrons that are donated to the electron transport chain by intermediate electron carriers are derived from oxidation/reduction reactions in glycolysis. 64) Energy production by chemolithotrophs result of inorganic molecule oxidation and passage of electrons into an electron transport chain for the generation of a proton motive force.
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  11) Eukaryal proteins that are expressed in bacteria frequently have low biological activity. Why? a) The introns were not removed from the mRNA. b) The protein was not modified by glycosylation.. c) Eukaryotic proteins are only partly translated by bacteria. d) The eukaryal genetic code is different from bacterial genetic code. e) The translation termination.
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  21) For most double-stranded DNA eukaryal viruses, DNA replication occurs in the _________ and translation occurs in the __________. a) cytoplasm, cytoplasm b) cytoplasm, nucleus c) nucleus, nucleus d) nucleus, cytoplasm e) mitochondria, cytoplasm 22) Most RNA viruses utilize a) an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase. b) a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. c) an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase. d) a DNA-dependent DNA polymerase. e) reverse.
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  31) Which of these amino acids are used for the production of the sweetener aspartame? a) glycine and asparagine b) glutamate and asparagine c) aspartate and phenylalanine d) aspartate and glycine e) tryptophan and proline 32) Microbes used for the production of amino acids are regulatory mutants for overproduction of the amino acid. The regulatory mutants.
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  30) Mutations in a cell can occur in the absence of selective pressure. 31) Mutations are able to occur spontaneously without any preexposure to a mutagen. 32) A suppressor mutation, which restores the wild-type phenotype in a previously mutant cell, always occurs in the gene that contained the original mutation. 33) An auxotroph.
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  1) Term for the process in which a peptide fragment expressed from a plasmid is able to combine with a peptide fragment expressed from the chromosome to form a functional peptide. a) α-Complementation b) Peptide binding c) Reciprocal crossover d) Hybridization e) Genetic complementation 2) Which of these is contained in an expression vector but not.
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  1) What did the experiment by Fred Griffith in 1928 with the R and S strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae demonstrate? a) DNA was the genetic material in cells. b) R strain phenotype could spontaneously revert to S strain phenotype. c) Genetic material from one strain could be transferred to another strain. d) The ability.
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  11) Which of these is TRUE for a chemoorganoheterotroph? a) Uses inorganic carbon as an energy source and organic carbon as a carbon source. b) Uses inorganic carbon as an electron source and organic carbon as a carbon source. c) Uses organic carbon as an electron source and inorganic carbon as a carbon.
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  36) In industry, fermentation must be done anaerobically. 37) Bioprospecting is the search for microorganisms that possess useful features for commercial applications. 38) Random mutagenesis is often used in industry to produce microbial strains that have increased production ability. 39) PCR can be used to introduce mutations into a microbial genome. 40) All secondary.
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  41) How would the “dark reactions” of photosynthesis best be described? a) energy generating reactions b) carbon dioxide fixing reactions c) glycolytic reactions d) reducing power generating reactions e) part of photosystem II 42) The key carbon dioxide fixation reaction in the Calvin Cycle is carried out by which enzyme? a) ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase b) ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate kinase c).
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  11) Suppose a microbe has died and lysed, exposing its DNA to the environment. Some of this DNA was taken up by another unrelated microbe and incorporated into its genome. This is an example of which process? a) transduction b) vertical gene transfer c) conjugation d) horizontal gene transfer e) endocytosis 12) The ________ protein is.
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1) Most likely, “host specificity” of a virus is determined by a) the type of nucleic acid it contains. b) the presence or absence of an envelope. c) viral enzymes. d) interactions between viral attachment proteins and host cell receptors. e) viral nucleic acid replication strategies. 2) The viral attachment protein specifically binds to a host.
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  1) What is the “sexual transfer” of genes in bacteria called? a) transformation b) transduction c) transfection d) conjugation e) coupling 2) Compared to the eukaryal chromosome, the bacteria chromosome: a) is more complex. b) contains genes that are usually present in only one copy. c) contains only a small percent of DNA that encodes for functional proteins. d) is.
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  20) Transformants are recombinant bacteria that have received new DNA via a bacteriophage. 21) An expression vector contains a strong promoter next to the cloning site. 22) Affinity tags often used in modern expression vectors to produce a fusion protein from the gene of interest, aids in recombinant protein purification. 23) The Sanger.
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  50) Several antiviral drugs that are produced today prevent attachment of the virus to the host cell. What information do you need to know to design the drugs? Briefly describe possible mechanisms of the drugs. 51) The capsid for many mammalian viruses must be removed after it enters the cytoplasm. Why.
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  11) Microarray analysis may be used to study: a) gene expression in cells grown under different conditions. b) protein expression in cells grown under different conditions. c) rate of chromosomal replication in cells. d) enzyme activity in cells. e) growth rate of cells when grown under different conditions. 12) Two-dimensional polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (2D-PAGE) separates proteins.
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  52) Drugs that inhibit the acidification of the endosome block the replication of many viruses that enter the cell through receptor-mediated endocytosis. Why are these drugs effective? 53) What are the functions of the retrovirus enzymes reverse transcriptase and integrase for the replication of the virus? 54) Describe the series of events.
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  21) Why are bioplastics often preferred over conventional plastics? a) Bioplastics are stronger. b) Bioplastics are less dense. c) Bioplastics are biodegradable. d) Bioplastics are cheaper to produce. e) Bioplastics are more pliable. 22) Polyhydroxyalkanoates are associated with the production of this material. a) ethanol b) methane c) biodiesel d) butanol e) bioplastics 23) Why do microorganisms accumulate polyhydroxyalkanoates? a) It is a.
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  43) Host __________ is determined through the specific binding of the viral attachment protein to the host cell receptor. 44) Antibodies produced in response to a viral infection may specifically bind to the virus particle to effectively block _______________ to the host cell. 45) _________ __________ _________ is initiated by the binding.
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  36) The DNA replication process in Archaea more closely resembles that in Eukarya than in Bacteria. 37) In DNA replication nucleotides are always added in the 5’ to 3’ direction. 38) Replication of eukaryal DNA requires RNA primer synthesis. 39) In the same bacterial cell, different sigma factors are able to control the.
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  11) Most non-enveloped animal viruses enter the host cell by a) membrane fusion. b) pinocytosis. c) injection of nucleic acid into host cell. d) lysis of host cell membrane. e) receptor mediated endocytosis. 12) Most non-enveloped viruses enter the host cell by receptor-mediated endocytosis. The virus or its nucleic acid is able to leave the endosome.
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  1) Expression of genes that are constitutive is: a) regulated by repression. b) unregulated. c) regulated by induction. d) regulated by activation. e) regulated by attenuation. 2) The expression of genes required for biofilm formation occurs only after a cell has attached to a surface that is suitable for biofilm development. What is this type of.
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  11) What, in bacteria, is analogous to the autonomously replicating sequence (ARS) in yeast? a) the promoter b) a plasmid c) a transposon d) the oriC e) a prophage 12) Which statement below is FALSE regarding replication of the bacterial chromosome? a) Replication occurs in a bidirectional manner from the origin of replication. b) The leading strand is.
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  45) Bioreactors or fermentors are used in industry to maximize cell density and therefore also increase product ________. 46) Expression of eukaryal DNA in bacterial cells requires the insertion of _______ into the plasmid expression vector. 47) The first recombinant protein produced for human use was ________. 48) The bacterium Bacillus megaterium naturally.
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  48) Give example of genes that are usually expressed constitutively. Why are these genes constitutively expressed? 49) How does lactose regulate the expression of the lac operon? 50) What is quorum sensing? How is it involved in the bioluminescence of the bacterium Vibrio fischeri?     .
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  30) An effector molecule always inactivates an allosteric enzyme. 31) Chemotaxis is a time-based or temporal response to a chemical gradient. 32) During chemotaxis, bacteria are able to determine if they are moving in the correct direction by measuring external chemical concentration at different points around the cell. 33) An activator protein enhances.
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  31) After the translational process the polypeptide folds into the appropriate conformation for proper functioning. What group of proteins aids in protein folding? a) proteases b) cytokines c) chaperonins d) peptidases e) lipases 32) Which of these would a signal peptide be used for? a) To regulate translation. b) To move a protein to the outside of the.
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  21) Which autoinducer is used by many Gram-negative bacteria? a) a homoserine lactone derivative b) an activator protein c) a repressor protein d) a metabolic intermediate e) allolactose 22) Once the autoinducer excreted by Vibrio fischeri reaches a critical concentration, it is able to diffuse back into the cell. What is its next action? a) Bind to.
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  35) Recombinant DNA technology was greatly facilitated by the discovery of ______ enzymes. 36) The Sanger method of sequencing used special nucleotides that are called ________ nucleotides. 37) In analyzing a genome sequence, a computer program identifies the beginning and the end of a protein encoding sequence. This sequence is referred to.
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  31) Enzymes that break down proteins into individual amino acids. a) amylases b) proteases c) reductases d) dehydrogenases e) lipases 32) The product(s) of the light reactions of photosynthesis. a) glucose and ATP b) glucoseonly c) ATPonly d) glucose and NADPH e) ATP and NADPH 33) What is the chromophore of the chlorophyll molecule composed of? a) A carotenoid molecule with an atom.
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  53) ATP molecules are the primary energy molecules for all cells. 54) A reaction that has a negative ΔG°’ is exergonic. 55) During glycolysis, the transfer of phosphate from phosphoenolpyruvate to ADP is an example of substrate-level phosphorylation. 56) A chemical that receives electrons during an oxidation/reduction reaction is being oxidized. 57) The process.
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