Biology Expert Answers & Study Resources

  16. Neurogenesis is defined as the: A. Release of NGF to stimulate axonal regeneration. B. Addition of AMPA receptors to the postsynaptic membrane. C. Ability of stem cells to create new neurons in the brain. D. None of the above 17. Which one of the following rehabilitation mechanisms promotes neural plasticity? A. Task-specific practice B. Early initiation.

  16. Sparing of language, spatial awareness, and declarative memory is typical of which of the following? A. Adult hydrocephalus B. Meningitis C. TIA D. Occlusion of the middle cerebral artery 17. An embolus in which of the following arteries will usually produce cerebellar ischemia? A. Vertebrobasilar B. Basilar C. Intracranial vertebral D. Cerebral 18. Which of the following generally carries.

  6. N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptors: A. Are involved in long-term potentiation. B. Bind glutamate. C. Have been implicated in pathologic changes in the nervous system. D. A, B, and C E. None of the above 7. Myasthenia gravis: A. Is caused by the destruction of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptors on the postsynaptic membrane of muscles. B. Results in the.

  6. What type of sensation can be described as an unpleasant abnormal sensation, whether evoked or spontaneous? A. Dysesthesia B. Allodynia C. Paresthesia D. Secondary hyperalgesia 7. What type of sensation can be described as pain evoked by a stimulus that would not normally cause pain? A. Dysesthesia B. Allodynia C. Paresthesia D. Secondary hyperalgesia 8. What type of sensation.

Test Bank 1. Which of the following is(are) the function(s) of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) system? A. To provide water and certain amino acids to the extracellular fluid B. To supply specific ions to the extracellular fluid C. To provide buoyancy to the brain D. A and B E. A, B, and C 2. What structure is.

  11. According to the somatic marker hypothesis: A. Specific areas of the body are mapped on the motor cortex. B. Memory is processed by both limbic and nonlimbic structures. C. The amygdala interprets facial expressions and social signals. D. Emotions are critical for sound judgment and decision making. E. Pressure points on the body correspond.

Test Bank 1. Somites are derived from which one of the following pre-embryonic cell layers? A. Endoderm B. Mesoderm C. Ectoderm D. Neural crest E. None of the above 2. Which one of the following statements about somites is NOT true? A. The sclerotome develops into the vertebrae and skull. B. The myotome develops into skeletal muscle. C. The dermatome.

  11. Which of the following may cause residual limb pain? A. Neuropathy B. Poorly fitting prosthesis C. Nerve compression D. All of the above 12. What type of headache is characterized by mild-to-moderate pain, is usually bilateral, and lasts 30 minutes to 7 days but is not aggravated by physical activity and is not associated.

  11. Long-term depression (LTD) is due to which of the following? A. Conversion of silent synapses to active synapses B. Removal of alpha-amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazolepropionic acid (AMPA) receptors from the postsynaptic membrane C. Addition of dopamine receptors to the presynaptic membrane D. Pairing of presynaptic and postsynaptic firing 12. Which one of the following externally applied devices.

Test Bank 1. Which one of the following studies is an example of systems level neuroscience? A. A study investigating the action of the neurotransmitter dopamine in the temporal lobes of rodents B. A study investigating the effect of impaired memory on walking performance C. A study investigating how autonomic nerves influences baroreceptors in.

  16. Which of the following items is an aspect of emotional lability? A. Abrupt mood shifts B. Lack of emotion C. Intentionally ignoring someone else’s emotions D. None of the above 17. What is Wernicke's aphasia? A. Inability to use language in any form B. Use of unintended words or phrases C. Difficulty in expressing oneself using language D..

  16. Activity of the medial pain system elicits which of the following types of responses? A. Affective B. Arousal C. Autonomic D. All of the above 17. Which one of the following are ascending tracts by which neurons reach the midbrain, reticular formation, and limbic areas? A. Spinoreticular B. Spinomesencephalic C. Spinothalamic D. All of the above 18. Which one.

  6. The resting membrane potential is: A. The same as the membrane equilibrium potential. B. The voltage difference across a neuron's cell membrane, maintained by an unequal distribution of one specific ion. C. Maintained by active transport of sodium ions (Na+) and potassium ions (K+) and passive diffusion of Na+, K+, and chloride.

Test Bank 1. During acute appendicitis, the contribution of the somatosensory nociceptive afferents is which of the following? A. Regulation of visceral function B. Production of skeletal muscle guarding to protect the appendix C. Modulation of respiratory function D. Signaling visceral distress to the brain E. Signaling conscious awareness of pain in the umbilical region 2. Areas.

  6. Partial occlusion of the basilar artery may cause: A. Tetraplegia. B. Loss of sensation. C. Coma. D. Cranial nerve signs. E. All of the above 7. Acute cerebellar infarction typically produces which of the following? A. Dizziness and/or vertigo with a lack of balance B. Nausea and vomiting, dysarthria, and headache C. Receptive aphasia D. A and B E. A,.

  11. For which condition might a callosotomy be beneficial? A. Epilepsy B. Parkinson’s disease C. Arthritis D. Dementia 12. Which kind of disorder may be caused by a lesion or dysfunction of the caudate head? A. Movement disorders B. Apathy C. A and B D. None of the above 13. Where is pain processed? A. Secondary sensory cortex B. Primary somatosensory cortex C..

  11. When working with a child with cerebral palsy, involuntarily slow, writhing movements in the arms and legs are observed. This is most likely classified as: A. Dystonic cerebral palsy B. Spastic cerebral palsy C. Ataxic cerebral palsy D. Hypotonic cerebral palsy 12. Which one the following statements is true? A. Cerebral palsy is permanent and.

Test Bank 1. Which of the following are projection fibers? A. Corticospinal B. Corticobrainstem C. Thalamocortical D. A and B E. A, B, and C 2. The primary somatosensory cortex: A. Receives information directly from the basal ganglia. B. Processes unconscious somatosensory information. C. Receives information via the dorsal column/medial lemniscus, and trigeminothalamocortical systems. D. Processes auditory and vestibular information. E. Performs.

  16. Which one of the following is not one of the primary components of a neuron? A. Axon B. Soma C. Postsynaptic membrane D. Dendrite 17. The strength of local electrical potentials is modulated and integrated via: A. Spatial summation, the combined effect of potentials generated in other parts of the neuron. B. Temporal summation, the combined.

Test Bank 1. Which of the following characterize the late stage of complex regional pain syndrome? A. Trauma B. Red skin, excessive sweating, edema, skin atrophy C. Lack of any sympathetic activity D. Muscle atrophy, osteoporosis, arthritic changes E. Excessive acetylcholine release by postganglionic neurons 2. Tinel’s sign is associated with which of the following? A. Avulsion of.

  16. Which of the following are not endorphins? A. Dynorphins B. ?-Endorphins C. Enkephalins D. All of the above are types of endorphins. 17. Which of the following is a site in the nervous system where the transmission of nociceptive information can be altered? A. Hormonal system B. Dorsal horn C. Cortical level D. All of the above 18. Which.

  6. The periaqueductal gray is located in which one of the following? A. Spinal cord dorsal horn B. Medulla C. Pons D. Midbrain E. Cerebral cortex 7. Which of the following guidelines will improve the reliability of sensory testing? A. Explain the purpose of the testing. B. Administer the test in a loud environment. C. Apply stimuli near the.

  6. Constraint-induced movement after a stroke requires which one of the following? A. Immobilization of the affected upper extremity (UE) to control spasticity B. Repetitive closed-chain resistance training C. Aggressive range of motion and exercise within 12 hours after a stroke D. Repetitive, task-specific functional movements of only the affected UE E. Weight bearing and.

Test Bank 1. The medial longitudinal fasciculus is a bilateral axonal pathway between the vestibular nuclei and which of the following? A. Cranial nerve nuclei III, IV, and VI B. Superior colliculus C. Cranial nerve nuclei XI D. A and B E. A, B, and C 2. Vestibular connections influence which of the following? A. Posture of the.

  6. A patient reports that she has recently had pain and a loss of coordination in her left leg. These symptoms initially began 5 days earlier, gradually worsened for 3 days, but then did not worsen or improve since that time. The speed of onset and nature of these complaints.

Test Bank 1. The second messenger in a second messenger system is a(n): A. G-protein B. ? chain of the G-protein C. Enzyme inside the neuron that can trigger responses within the neuron D. Neurotransmitter E. Gene 2. Second messengers may initiate the: A. Opening of membrane ion channels B. Activation of genes, causing increased synthesis of specific cellular.

  11. Blood supply to the deep structures of the brain is provided by which of the following? A. Deep branches of the posterior cerebral arteries B. Anterior choroidal arteries C. Posterior choroidal arteries D. Both B and C E. A, B, and C 12. The middle cerebral arteries arise from the ________ and supply the _________. A..

  6. Which one of the following structures is derived from the neural crest? A. Dorsal horn of the spinal cord B. Motor neurons to skeletal muscle C. Peripheral nerve except motor neurons D. Ventral horn of the spinal cord E. Both A and D 7. Which one of the following correctly pairs a brain structure with.

Test Bank 1. Sensory extinction is the: A. Inability to recognize any sensations consciously. B. Loss of conscious proprioception. C. Same as astereognosis. D. Awareness of stimuli on only one side of the body when both sides of the body are simultaneously stimulated. E. Inability to localize a pinprick on one side of the body. 2. The.

  6. Trunk and girdle muscles are controlled by descending signals from neurons in which of the following? A. Supplementary motor area B. Premotor area C. Broca’s area D. Area analogous to Broca’s area in the nondominant hemisphere E. Primary motor cortex 7. The functions of the dorsolateral prefrontal association cortex include which of the following? A. Deciding.

  16. The ___________ vestibulospinal tract is the primary tract for vestibular influence on lower motor neurons to postural muscles in the limbs and trunk. A. Lateral B. Medial C. Anterior D. Posterior 17. How do the vestibular connections with the reticular formation affect the autonomic nervous system? A. Vestibular connections with the reticular formation do not.

  11. Projections from the vestibular nuclei contribute to which of the following? A. Postural adjustments B. Autonomic function and consciousness C. Gaze stabilization D. All of the above 12. Which of the following is a role of the vestibular system? A. Postural adjustments B. Provides sensory information C. Gaze stabilization D. All of the above 13. To detect a movement.

Test Bank 1. Which one of the following neuron structures is specialized for receiving synaptic input from other neurons? A. Cell body B. Dendrite C. Axon D. Axon hillock E. Presynaptic terminal 2. Which of the following is the structural part of a neuron that releases a neurotransmitter? A. Dendrite B. Axon hillock C. Soma D. Presynaptic terminal E. Postsynaptic terminal 3. Pseudounipolar.

  11. The binding of ACh at the neuromuscular junction results in: A. An inhibitory postsynaptic potential. B. Presynaptic facilitation. C. Presynaptic inhibition. D. An excitatory postsynaptic potential. 12. Neurotransmitters that act ________ are classified as ________, whereas neurotransmitters that act ________are classified as ________. A. Directly; slow-acting; indirectly; fast-acting B. Directly; inhibitory; indirectly; excitatory C. Directly; fast-acting; indirectly;.

  6. Which of the following may occur with damage to the area corresponding to Wernicke’s area? A. Inability to understand nonverbal communication B. Personal neglect C. Spatial neglect D. A and B E. A, B, and C 7. Which of the following characterize spatial neglect? A. Navigation apraxia B. Dressing apraxia C. Visual agnosia D. A and B E. A, B,.

  6. Which of the following is a function of the primary somatosensory cortex? A. Discrimination of the texture of an object B. Discrimination of the shape of an object C. Stereognosis D. Both A and B E. A, B, and C 7. A lesion to which one of the following regions would result in crossed analgesia? A..

  6. Drugs that block beta-1 (?1) receptors are used to treat which one of the following? A. Asthma B. Excess sweating C. Metabolic disorders D. Tachycardia E. Vagus nerve disorders 7. Where are the cell bodies of the sympathetic preganglionic neurons located? A. Autonomic nuclei of the brainstem B. Lateral horn of spinal cord T1-L2 levels C. Lateral horn.

  16. Which of the following correctly pairs a cerebral structure with its function? A. Corpus striatum; memory formation B. Internal capsule; cortical and subcortical communication C. Amygdala; somatosensory integration and processing D. Epithalamus; regulation of metabolic rate 17. The cerebral hemispheres are: A. Divided by the central sulcus. B. Subdivided into four lobes per hemisphere. C. Composed primarily.

Test Bank 1. Spinal axons conveying a signal for conscious somatosensation from the upper limb ascend in which of the following? A. Ventral horn B. Fasciculus gracilis C. Fasciculus cuneatus D. Internal arcuate fibers E. Medial lemniscus 2. Cell bodies of second-order neurons conveying a signal for conscious proprioceptive information from the lower limb are located in.

Test Bank 1. The inability to understand written or spoken language, including inability to read and write and produce meaningful language, despite the ability to produce fluent speech sounds: A. Broca’s aphasia B. Conduction aphasia C. Global aphasia D. Wernicke’s aphasia E. Dysarthria 2. Dysarthria is caused by a lesion of which of the following? A. Broca’s area,.

  16. Factors associated with autistic disorders include: A. Abnormality of the caudate and putamen. B. Temporal cortical damage. C. Cerebellar atrophy. D. Prenatal hypoxia. 17. During critical periods of neurologic development: A. Neuronal projections compete for synaptic sites. B. Conditions for learning a new task are optimal. C. Permanent structural changes occur in the nervous system. D. Both A.

  16. What type of headache is characterized by pain after head injury and abrupt onset? A. Headache caused by excessive pressure B. Headache caused by hemorrhage C. Headache caused by serious intracranial disease D. ETTH 17. Which of the following are characteristic of CRPS? A. Effects on the somatosensory, autonomic, and motor systems B. Muscle guarding, disuse,.

  11. Which one of the following is the difference between discriminative touch and conscious proprioception? A. Discriminative touch allows for the localization of touch; conscious proprioception involves the awareness of movement of body parts. B. Conscious proprioception allows for localization of touch; discriminative touch involves the awareness of movement of body parts. C..

Test Bank 1. Neurons that are deprived of oxygen for a prolonged period: A. Release glycine, which inhibits the postsynaptic neurons and prevents neural function even in neurons not directly affected by the oxygen deprivation. B. Become inactive and slowly regenerate. C. Release glutamate, which causes overexcitation of the surrounding neurons. D. A, B, and.

  16. Which of the following neurotransmitters and modulators are implicated in pain perception? A. Opioid peptides B. Substance P C. Dopamine D. Both A and B E. All of the above 17. Receptor tyrosine kinases: A. Act through second messenger systems. B. Are usually activated by neuropeptides or hormones. C. Function through phosphorylation of tyrosine. D. Both A and C E..

  11. If sitting with the legs crossed, sensory loss will eventually occur. (Part of the limb will “fall asleep.”) In what order will this loss occur? (Hint: compression of a nerve affects function in order according to axon diameter and myelination; largest diameter myelinated axons are affected first) A. 1. Slow.

  11. Venous blood that accumulates in the dural sinus will drain into which of the following? A. Watershed area B. Internal carotid vein C. Jugular vein D. Fourth ventricle E. None of the above 12. Which of the following correctly describes the circulation of CSF? A. Choroid plexus, subarachnoid space, lateral ventricles, arachnoid villi B. Arachnoid villi, subarachnoid.

  11. The nodes of Ranvier: A. Are distributed approximately every 1 to 2 millimeters (mm) along the membrane of the cell axon. B. Contain a high density of modality-gated K+ channels for rapid depolarization of the membrane. C. Contain a high density of voltage-gated Na+ channels for rapid repolarization of the membrane. D. Have.

  6. Damage to the right frontal eye fields may result in which deviation in visual control? A. Tropia B. Abnormal vestibulo-ocular reflexes C. Rotary nystagmus D. Ptosis E. Persistent ipsilateral gaze 7. Vertigo accompanied by sensory and/or motor loss, diplopia, and dysarthria is indicative of a lesion of which of the following? A. Cerebellum B. Vestibulothalamocortical pathway C. Brainstem D..

  16. A patient has severe motor learning deficits. These deficits likely involve damage to which of the following areas? A. Motor cortex, cingulate cortex, and thalamus B. Parietal cortex, temporal cortex, and ventral striatum C. Motor cortex, parietal cortex, and ventral striatum D. Parietal cortex, cingulate cortex, and thalamus 17. A patient is being taught.